MOSAIC LAW GIVEN TO THE JEWS?

[davanz]

This is just one of those trivia questions which should make us think. We know that the Law was given by Jehovah, through Moses, to a group of people. So the question is, who? Was it given to the Jews? 

[Dustparticle]

38 minutes ago, davanz said:

This is just one of those trivia questions which should make us think. We know that the Law was given by Jehovah, through Moses, to a group of people. So the question is, who? Was it given to the Jews? 

Yes, and eventually a nation of Isreal was formed too. The promised Messiah must arrived under these so it was was proven that Jesus is and will be the Messiah.

 

Messianic Prophecies—Was Jesus the Messiah? What does “Messiah” mean? (jw.org)

[Parale]

1 hour ago, davanz said:

This is just one of those trivia questions which should make us think. We know that the Law was given by Jehovah, through Moses, to a group of people. So the question is, who? Was it given to the Jews?

 

No. Because you need to define a 'Jew'.

 

Glossary of Bible Terms, New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures

Jew. A term used for a person of the tribe of Judah after the fall of the ten-tribe kingdom of Israel. (2Ki 16:6) After the Babylonian exile, it was used with regard to Israelites from various tribes who returned to Israel. (Ezr 4:12) Later, it was used throughout the world to distinguish Israelites from those of the Gentile nations. (Es 3:6

https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1001061175#h=161

 

You Can Live Forever in Paradise on Earth, pages 203, paragraph 3

The [Mosaic]  Law was not given to all humankind. Jehovah made a covenant, or an agreement, with the descendants of Jacob, who became the nation of Israel. Jehovah gave his laws to this nation only.

https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101989114#h=6

 

Therefore the Mosaic Law was not 'given to the Jews', it was given to all the descendants of Jacob.

Edited February 16, 2023 by Parale

[davanz]

Actually, no. There were no Jews at that time. The Law was given to the Israelites. The word Jew was not used on the Bible until after the fall of the ten tribes to the north. The term Jew initially referred to people of the southern kingdom of Judah, and it's usage expanded from there. So, before there was a tribal section of the Promised Land named Judah, there were not Jews.

 

A technicality, but interesting some of us.

 

 

[Dages]

18 minutes ago, davanz said:

The Law was given to the Israelites

Yes. It's common to associate "jews" with "israelites".