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Jehovah's name is explained to Moses as meaning "I shall prove to be, what I shall prove to be". This is a reference to the fact that, whatever is his will, he can make it a reality.
If that is so, why did the Septuagint, which was translated by Jews who knew the language, translate it as egō eimi ho ōn? (“I am the One who is”), which seemingly refers to God's aseity rather than having to do with his purpose?
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Here's a couple of answers for you:
From the book 'God according to God' by Hebrew speaker and scholar Gerald Schroeder, "Ex 3:14 is a verse often mistranslated...Moses...asks God's name. In reply, God said to Moses "I will be that which I will be"... This meaning of the Hebrew text is vastly different from the KJ rendering of that verse"I am that I am". The erroneous KJ version is based on the 4th century Latin Vulgate, and the Septuagint.
The irony of this ongoing error is that the exact Hebrew word in question, Eh.yeh, appears just two verses earlier in verse 12, and both the Latin and the Greek translations render this"I will be", not"I am"....
The translators actually changed the meaning of the Biblical text! Eh.yeh is not a present tense verb or a noun, with all the implications of stasis, but a genderless verb actively projecting into the future".
Also, from The Journal of Biblical Literature:
"The Hebrew equivalent of I exist... would not be Eh.yeh but Hayi'thi... The Hebrew for I am (so and so) is Ani' (which) would not make use of the verb hayah at all... Thus the Hebrew for 'I am that I am' is not 'Ehyeh' asher Ehyeh', nor does it differ from that clause only in the matter of the tense of the verb...Ehyeh' in this sentence can only mean 'I will be or become (something); for of course 'I will be or become (somebody) is not a sensible alternative".
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